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From my point of view, the answer is CORRECT.
The dummy variable for the summation is $i$ instead of $n$.
That is to say, $$1 = \sum_{i = 1}^{n}\frac{1}{n} \neq \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n}(\text{diverges}).$$
So, summing up $1/n$'s, would yield to the result $1$. @jingyuhhh@Toby1009
sum(1/n)=1?
1/n is divergent. Why can it be 1?
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