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I asked a question and received an answer from @philippberens. Thanks for your response @philippberens.
However something is still not clear to me and I am creating this issue to ask about it. The previous issue was closed and I think cannot ask there anymore. I appreciate if you can help me solve my problem.
Can you please let me know what do you mean by " The field is much less standardized" in you response?
The reason that I am finding this a problem is this:
Given the fact that the input distribution is symmetric therefore skewness, by its definition, should be zero I think. It is weird that I get two different values using these two methods.
It is true that these measures are different, but I think that the concept of skewness should be the same for both, isn't it true?
I greatly appreciate it if you can help me understand this problem.
The text was updated successfully, but these errors were encountered:
What is meant is that there are two different definitions around, like for circular variance. For classical non-circular statistics, everybody agreed on what to call variance long ago, for circular statistics, there are still different options. Therefore the code implements both.
Thank you for your response @philippberens. I think maybe there is a bug in the skewness value calculated by the Fisher method.
Please consider this vecotr (values are in radians): b=[0.8149,0.8456,0.3600,0.6513,0.9229,1.3470,0.5658,1.3099,1.1366,0.6194]
Your code gives a value of -78.8672 for the Fisher method.
However, I could find the R code below which gives a different result (-0.6). I found the code from here:
cc <- c(0.8149,0.8456,0.3600, 0.6513,0.9229,1.3470,0.5658,1.3099,1.1366,0.6194)
cskew(cc %% (2*pi))
It think the value that I get from your code is not reasonable and maybe there is a bug in your code. Can you please check to see whether you agree with me on this?
I asked a question and received an answer from @philippberens. Thanks for your response @philippberens.
However something is still not clear to me and I am creating this issue to ask about it. The previous issue was closed and I think cannot ask there anymore. I appreciate if you can help me solve my problem.
Can you please let me know what do you mean by " The field is much less standardized" in you response?
The reason that I am finding this a problem is this:
Given the fact that the input distribution is symmetric therefore skewness, by its definition, should be zero I think. It is weird that I get two different values using these two methods.
It is true that these measures are different, but I think that the concept of skewness should be the same for both, isn't it true?
I greatly appreciate it if you can help me understand this problem.
The text was updated successfully, but these errors were encountered: